The fact that in the office of about 40 people I work in only 1 has
taken
a holiday of longer than 10 days in the last year. None of my friends
or family have taken 2 weeks either and last year I didn't notice an
appreciable drop in commuter traffic levels in london last summer
either.

So other than first hand experience I don't have any evidence.

No risk of sampling bias then? And no contradiction between your
conclusion and the ONS who reported in "Travel Trends 2010" the average
over all overseas holiday trips in 2010 was 10 nights?



--
Robin
reply to address is (meant to be) valid