Robin May wrote:
"Henry" wrote the following in:


"Martin Underwood" wrote
Is that motivated purely by H&S considerations or (being cynical)
could it be that bottled water can be charged for (and therefore
someone can make a profit out of those sales) whereas a water
fountain cannot easily be made profitable?

As a side thought, I think I am right in saying that in
restaurants in France, a bottle of water has to be paid for, but
if you ask for a jugful they are prohibited by law from charging.

I'm pretty sure that in the UK you can ask for tap water and they have
to give you it free.

Not unless it has changed recently. A publican or restaurateur is entitled
to charge for the labour ,use of the glass etc. Since they are also paying
for the water on a commercial basis they are surely entitled to pass that
charge on?