wrote in message
...
On Wed, 18 Apr 2007 19:05:39 +0100, "Mike Lyle"
wrote:


That 1709+ sense isn't the "his university" one. Earlier in the
entry there are plenty of examples of "his" used for things which
aren't
possessions. I think Clavox has the wrong end of the stick. And even
if
he _has_ identified a change, it wouldn't be relevant in the
slightest
to current formal English, in which "his school" etc are perfectly
idiomatic. If he doubts the validity of this attitude, ask him why he
isn't talking like the first line of OED's examples.

Mike I am not and wasn't after an argument here but has I said it
always riles me when I see and hear people saying this kind of thing
" HIS firm does this that and the other etc etc" wrong in my book it
should be the firm or company he works for does etc etc .

Hi, Clavox. Arguments are what we often do round here (AUE) - usually
politely. You certainly don't have to use the form yourself, but it
equally certainly isn't wrong: grammatical possession isn't ownership in
the sense in which property is owned. See Ron's example with the
drummer: I really don't see how one can fault, or improve upon, the
Biblical "thy neighbour" or "[Jethro] went his way into his own land".

--
Mike.



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