On Fri, 09 May 2008 11:32:40 +0100, David Hansen wrote in
, seen in uk.railway:
On Fri, 09 May 2008 10:16:00 GMT someone who may be Chris Tolley
wrote this:-

[...]
Over the past year, I can recall one situation I observed where I felt
that a motorist had potentially caused danger to a cyclist. It would be
four or five where the cause of the danger was the cyclist.

How does a cyclist cause danger to a motorist?

I'm confused. Where did Chris claim the cyclist was causing danger to
the motorist?

My own read of his sentence was that the cyclist's actions were
causing danger to *the cyclist*.

--
Ross.
* Opinions are my own; my employer has disowned me again.
* Reply-to will bounce. Replace the junk-trap with my first name to e-mail me.

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