In article , JNugent wrote:
Nick Leverton wrote:

Not my area of expertise nor of interest, sorry. I'm sure you can look
the regs up if you're interested to know what the precise reason was ...

The reason it was done*, in this context, isn't as important as how it
was done. Either there there were regulations allowing it in the early
sixties**, or there weren't.

[* To prevent large and/or slow-moving vehicles from clogging all the
lanes at once - which was starting to happen.]

[** For that is when the third lane ban for lorries came in - 1960s.]

For sure. IIRC the Highway Code has pointers to applicable legislation
for those of its clauses which are legal requirements. You might find
that to be of help in your research.

In the meantime, my statement may have been correct and your understanding
of the legal situation incomplete, or perhaps my understanding was
incomplete, or perhaps I was plain wrong, but logic alone will not
provide the answer as to which, let alone why.

I wish you luck in your quest to find someone who is bothered enough
about it to research the answer as to why lorries could be banned from
some lanes in the 1960s but cars had to wait until 30 or 40 years later
to gain equal rights in that respect.

Nick
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