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#11
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On 14 May, 13:41, Chris wrote:
On 14 May, 00:05, Barry Salter wrote: So, here we are with what would need to be done at a National Rail station (again, LU is probably similar, but I can't comment on that). Step 1a - Calculate ACTUAL number of days for the new ticket. In this case, that's 12th May 2009 to 30th December 2009. *From a calendar, that works out at 233 days. Step 1b - Calculate base rate for the OLD ticket, to the nearest penny. Already done in my previous post, but this is £968 (i.e. the original price of the ticket) divided by 365 days, or £2.65. Step 1c - Calculate credit due on OLD ticket. £2.65 x 233 days = £617.45 Step 2a - Calculate cost of NEW ticket for the *same period* as the old one. This would be £1136.00 for an Annual Zones 1 to 3 for 31st December 2008 to 30th December 2009. Step 2b - Calculate the base rate for the NEW ticket. Again, we've already done this, £1136 / 365 = £3.11 per day to the nearest penny. Step 2c - Calculate charge due for NEW ticket. £3.11 x 233 days = £724.63. Hmmm - isn't the base rate worked on *working* days - i.e. 260 in a full year? 52 x 5? Secondly, I think an allowance is then given for holidays - 4 weeks / 20 days? So the base rate is worked out on 240 days in a year, I think.... ..... No, because the ticket was originally valid for 365 days. Seasons are still valid on weekends, so why should they be excluded from the calculations? The only time when this doesn't work is when you have less time left on the ticket than the minimum that the refund will be given for (I think this is four weeks for an annual, but that's just from memory). |
#12
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#13
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Chris wrote:
Hmmm - isn't the base rate worked on *working* days - i.e. 260 in a full year? 52 x 5? Secondly, I think an allowance is then given for holidays - 4 weeks / 20 days? So the base rate is worked out on 240 days in a year, I think.... ..... For changeover purposes, the base rate is calculated on the basis of one month being 30 days and one year being 365 days. The concept of "working" days applies when calculating refunds due to "void days" (i.e. where a TOC has given up on the service for whatever reason and has it so doesn't count towards that month's punctuality and reliability figures). For void day purposes: One week = 5 days, one month = 22 days, and one year = 260 days. So if, for example, you had an Annual Season costing £2600, and void days were declared, each one would entitle you to a £10 refund. Alternatively, you can have them added on to the ticket upon renewal (with an adjustment to take into account a weekend if needed). Normal season ticket refunds, on the other hand, are based on the ticket(s) you would have needed to buy had you decided to travel just for the given period from the outset. Cheers, Barry |
#14
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![]() Something else that I'm not totally happy about is the way it works at the hotel I stayed at recently. When you check-in they obtain 'pre authorisation' for an amount equal to the cost of the room plus £30, and for this you have to enter a PIN. When you check out they charge the actual amount to your card, and for this you again have to enter the PIN. As far as I could see there was nothing on the screen to indicate whether this was a 'Pre-authorisation', or an actual charge. I did check my account, and it does seem to work the way they say it does, only one amount was taken, but it should always be very clear to the customer exactly what they are authorising when they key in the PIN, and it isn't. Pre authorisation reduces the amount of credit available to you. If, at the time of actual payment, they fail to link to the pre authorisation it can stay on your account, reducing the available credit for as long as 28 days. If the link is made the pre authorisation is reversed, giving you your available credit back and the actual debit is applied. Mind you, it certainly used to be the case that the two transactions were not always simultaneous and, of course, the correct debit was applied before the reversal of pre authorisation occurred. IT is, unfortunately, standard practice in hotels. |
#15
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Thanks, all.
Just to keep you all in the loop, spoke to Oystercard who couldn't help me because the transaction never went through them but was carried out locally at Mansion House. But I was put through to a charming and professional young lady by the name of Jennifer who was very helpful indeed, and very sorry to hear my story. Rather than fill in an online form with the details, she gave me an email address and a reference number, and I emailed all the details to her. My mortgage came out today and I am heavily overdrawn, so I'm hoping that it will be fixed asap. Obviously there will need to be an internal investigation that may take some time, but in the short term I am hoping that they will see that there has been a serious error whereby I have clearly lost hundreds of pounds and that this will be refunded before the investigation starts. I certainly got that impression in any case. Fingers crossed! Have scanned and emailed them everything, from my gold cards to my receipts to even my bank statements from last December and from this month, to show that the money has come out, nothing's been repaid, etc. Thanks all of you for your various tips etc. TRISTÁN |
#16
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In message , at 21:22:56 on Thu, 14
May 2009, Stephen Furley remarked: Something else that I'm not totally happy about is the way it works at the hotel I stayed at recently. When you check-in they obtain 'pre authorisation' for an amount equal to the cost of the room plus £30, and for this you have to enter a PIN. When you check out they charge the actual amount to your card, and for this you again have to enter the PIN. As far as I could see there was nothing on the screen to indicate whether this was a 'Pre-authorisation', or an actual charge. I did check my account, and it does seem to work the way they say it does, only one amount was taken, but it should always be very clear to the customer exactly what they are authorising when they key in the PIN, and it isn't. That reminds me - I stayed at a foreign hotel about a month ago and they insisted on making a 10-euro test-payment using their C&P machine. This was for "extras" and in fact I didn't incur any. When I checked out there was some confusion about whether or not the 10-euros needed to be explicitly refunded, or whether it just "expired" in some strange way. I must check my statements... -- Roland Perry |
#17
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On Fri, 15 May 2009 11:53:26 +0100, Roland Perry
wrote: That reminds me - I stayed at a foreign hotel about a month ago and they insisted on making a 10-euro test-payment using their C&P machine. This was for "extras" and in fact I didn't incur any. When I checked out there was some confusion about whether or not the 10-euros needed to be explicitly refunded, or whether it just "expired" in some strange way. I must check my statements... I've seen that - it seems that while taking the "swipe" (pre-authorisation for things like the minibar) some badly-designed terminals show it as an actual purchase with an amount and require a PIN, but it isn't an actual transaction and doesn't go on the statement. I'd still check, though, to make sure they didn't do it wrong. Neil -- Neil Williams Put my first name before the at to reply. |
#18
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Neil Williams wrote:
On Fri, 15 May 2009 11:53:26 +0100, Roland Perry wrote: That reminds me - I stayed at a foreign hotel about a month ago and they insisted on making a 10-euro test-payment using their C&P machine. This was for "extras" and in fact I didn't incur any. When I checked out there was some confusion about whether or not the 10-euros needed to be explicitly refunded, or whether it just "expired" in some strange way. I must check my statements... I've seen that - it seems that while taking the "swipe" (pre-authorisation for things like the minibar) some badly-designed terminals show it as an actual purchase with an amount and require a PIN, but it isn't an actual transaction and doesn't go on the statement. On the occasions I've been asked to provide a card for authorisation in a hotel, it's generally said "Pre-Auth" (or similar) on the display on the PED. On a similar subject, I went into a branch of NatWest last week to pay a cheque in, over the counter, and was asked to use Chip & PIN to confirm the deposit. That's a new one on me. Cheers, Barry |
#19
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#20
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In message , at 00:04:21 on Sun, 17
May 2009, Barry Salter remarked: That reminds me - I stayed at a foreign hotel about a month ago and they insisted on making a 10-euro test-payment using their C&P machine. This was for "extras" and in fact I didn't incur any. When I checked out there was some confusion about whether or not the 10-euros needed to be explicitly refunded, or whether it just "expired" in some strange way. I must check my statements... I've seen that - it seems that while taking the "swipe" (pre-authorisation for things like the minibar) some badly-designed terminals show it as an actual purchase with an amount and require a PIN, but it isn't an actual transaction and doesn't go on the statement. On the occasions I've been asked to provide a card for authorisation in a hotel, it's generally said "Pre-Auth" (or similar) on the display on the PED. The thing that was strange was being asked for a PIN - that's the first time a pre-authorisation has worked like that (and I've stayed in literally hundreds of hotels). But C&P is beginning to spread - I had to use a PIN to pay my hotel bill for the first time in Geneva earlier this week, and oddly they didn't ask for a CC when I checked in (although they had a number via the booking agency to guarantee the booking, but that doesn't normally stop people asking again). On a similar subject, I went into a branch of NatWest last week to pay a cheque in, over the counter, and was asked to use Chip & PIN to confirm the deposit. That's a new one on me. Any card, or one of theirs? -- Roland Perry |
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