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Old May 29th 09, 07:31 PM posted to uk.transport.london,uk.railway
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Default Oyster revenue allocation question

A mate and I got into a discussion about how the revenue from the
Oyster card is allocated between participating operators. If I make a
journey on a bus at a cost of £1, I assume the £1 goes to the bus
operator (possibly with deduction of a service charge). If I then
travel on the tube at a cost of £2.20, logically this money would go
to London Underground. This brings the total spend to £3.20. Next I
travel on DLR with a fare of £2.20. I then make a second journey on
the tube. This money can go to London Underground. Total spend is
now £5.40. Now suppose I go on DLR with a fare of £2.20. This makes
a total of £7.60. At this point the price cap kicks in and the cost
is limited to £5.80. I then get on another bus (£1).

Who gets paid what? Does the first bus operator and London
Underground get paid in full, DLR in part and the second bus operator
not get paid at all? Or do they all have their payment scaled back on
a pro rata basis? Or do none of them get paid the actual fare and
they all take a share of the total Travelcard revenue?

Or looking at it another ways If I only make one journey, on a bus,
does the bus company keep the £1 or do they get a pre-determined share
of the total Oyster money instead?

Thanks
Scott
 
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